Which verse states that the law is not made for a righteous man?

Which verse states that the law is not made for a righteous man?

• A. Romans 3:20
• B. Galatians 3:11
• C. 1 Timothy 1:8-11
• D. Hebrews 8:7

Answer: (C)

The idea being tested is the purpose and audience of the law. There is a direct statement in 1 Timothy 1:9-10 (in many translations, including the KJV) that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and sinners. This captures the sense that the law exposes sin and operates to convict those who live in disobedience, while those who are righteous by faith are not under it in the same way. That exact wording and emphasis are why this verse is the best fit for the question. Other verses discuss the law’s function in different ways—its role in revealing sin (Romans 3:20), justification by faith (Galatians 3:11), or the inadequacy of the old covenant (Hebrews 8:7)—but they do not state the line in question.

The idea being tested is the purpose and audience of the law. There is a direct statement in 1 Timothy 1:9-10 (in many translations, including the KJV) that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and sinners. This captures the sense that the law exposes sin and operates to convict those who live in disobedience, while those who are righteous by faith are not under it in the same way. That exact wording and emphasis are why this verse is the best fit for the question. Other verses discuss the law’s function in different ways—its role in revealing sin (Romans 3:20), justification by faith (Galatians 3:11), or the inadequacy of the old covenant (Hebrews 8:7)—but they do not state the line in question.